Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA 200-301 Exam demo

QUESTION 1


Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?
A. default route
B. network route
C. host route
D. floating static route
Correct Answer: B
Section: Network Fundamentals

QUESTION 2




Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router1 use for traffic to Host A?
A. 10.10.10.0/28
B. 10.10.13.0/25
C. 10.10.13.144/28
D. 10.10.13.208/29
Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The prefix with “longest prefix” will be matched first, in this case is “/29”.

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.
Select and Place:



Correct Answer:



QUESTION 4
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented?
(Choose two.)
A. input errors
B. frame
C. giants
D. CRC
E. runts
Correct Answer: AD
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Whenever the physical transmission has problems, the receiving device might receive a frame whose bits have
changed values. These frames do not pass the error detection logic as implemented in the FCS field in the
Ethernet trailer. The receiving device discards the frame and counts it as some kind of input error. Cisco
switches list this error as a CRC error. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a term related to how the FCS math
detects an error.
The “input errors” includes runts, giants, no buffer, CRC, frame, overrun, and ignored counts.
The output below show the interface counters with the “show interface s0/0/0” command:


QUESTION 5

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.
B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.
C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol.
D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits.
Correct Answer: A
Section: Network Fundamentals

QUESTION 6

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.
B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.
C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol.
D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits.
Correct Answer: A
Section: Network Fundamentals

QUESTION 7
Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?
A. management
B. protected frame
C. action
D. control
Correct Answer: A
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are three main types of 802.11 frames: the Data Frame, the Management Frame and the Control Frame.
Association Response belongs to Management Frame. Association response is sent in response to an
association request.
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/802.11_Frame_Types

QUESTION 8
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports
are required?
A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them.
B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks.
C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
Correct Answer: C
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Spine-leaf architecture is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves
(such as an access layer). Spine-leaf topologies provide high-bandwidth, low-latency, nonblocking server-toserver
connectivity.
Leaf (aggregation) switches are what provide devices access to the fabric (the network of spine and leaf
switches) and are typically deployed at the top of the rack. Generally, devices connect to the leaf switches.
Devices can include servers, Layer 4-7 services (firewalls and load balancers), and WAN or Internet routers.
Leaf switches do not connect to other leaf switches. In spine-and-leaf architecture, every leaf should connect to
every spine in a full mesh.
Spine (aggregation) switches are used to connect to all leaf switches and are typically deployed at the end or
middle of the row. Spine switches do not connect to other spine switches.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-9000-series-switches/guide-c07-
733228.html

QUESTION 9
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources.
B. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch.
C. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.
D. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from
the hypervisor.


Correct Answer: C
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an
interface?
A. ipv6 address dhcp
B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64
C. ipv6 address autoconfig
D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local
Correct Answer: C
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The “ipv6 address autoconfig” command causes the device to perform IPv6 stateless address autoconfiguration
to discover prefixes on the link and then to add the EUI-64 based addresses to the interface.
Addresses are configured depending on the prefixes received in Router Advertisement (RA) messages. The
device will listen for RA messages which are transmitted periodically from the router (DHCP Server). This RA
message allows a host to create a global IPv6 address from:
• Its interface identifier (EUI-64 address)
• Link Prefix (obtained via RA)
Note: Global address is the combination of Link Prefix and EUI-64 address

QUESTION 11
96CE4376707A97CE80D4B1916F054522
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.)
A. 2000::/3
B. 2002::5
C. FC00::/7
D. FF02::1
E. FF02::2
Correct Answer: DE
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When an interface is configured with IPv6 address, it automatically joins the all nodes (FF02::1) and solicitednode
(FF02::1:FFxx:xxxx) multicast groups. The all-node group is used to communicate with all interfaces on
the local link, and the solicited-nodes multicast group is required for link-layer address resolution. Routers also
join a third multicast group, the all-routers group (FF02::2).
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/xe-3s/ipv6-xe-36s-book/ip6-multicast.html

QUESTION 12

What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is
received?
A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.
B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.
96CE4376707A97CE80D4B1916F054522
C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.
Correct Answer: C
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If the destination MAC address is not in the CAM table (unknown destination MAC address), the switch sends
the frame out all other ports that are in the same VLAN as the received frame. This is called flooding. It does
not flood the frame out the same port on which the frame was received.

QUESTION 13
An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask
combination meets this criteria?
A. interface e0/0
description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX
ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252
B. interface e0/0
description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248
C. interface e0/0
description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX
ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248
D. interface e0/0
description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX
ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252
Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Fundamentals

QUESTION 14
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
A. 172.9.0.0/16
B. 172.28.0.0/16
C. 192.0.0.0/8
D. 209.165.201.0/24
Correct Answer: B
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This question asks about the private ranges of IPv4 addresses. The private ranges of each class of IPv4 are
listed below:
Class A private IP address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
Class B private IP address ranges from 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
Class C private IP address ranges from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
96CE4376707A97CE80D4B1916F054522
Only the network 172.28.0.0/16 belongs to the private IP address (of class B).


QUESTION 15
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
A. link-local
B. unique local
C. multicast
D. global unicast
Correct Answer: B
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A IPv6 Unique Local Address is an IPv6 address in the block FC00::/7. It is the approximate IPv6 counterpart of
the IPv4 private address. It is not routable on the global Internet.
Note: In the past, Site-local addresses (FEC0::/10) are equivalent to private IP addresses in IPv4 but now they
are deprecated.
Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local subnet. It is usually created dynamically
using a link-local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on 48-bit MAC address).

QUESTION 16
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.)
A. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used
B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex
C. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again
D. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted
E. when the cable length limits are exceeded
Correct Answer: BE
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A late collision is defined as any collision that occurs after the first 512 bits (or 64th byte) of the frame have
been transmitted. The usual possible causes are full-duplex/half-duplex mismatch, exceeded Ethernet cable
length limits, or defective hardware such as incorrect cabling, non-compliant number of hubs in the network, or
a bad NIC.
Late collisions should never occur in a properly designed Ethernet network. They usually occur when Ethernet
cables are too long or when there are too many repeaters in the network.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/internetworking/troubleshooting/guide/tr1904.html

QUESTION 17
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.
B. Central AP management requires more complex configurations.
C. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method.
D. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs.
Correct Answer: A
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
96CE4376707A97CE80D4B1916F054522
A. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and errdisabled.
B. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port, a syslog message is generated.
C. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked, data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused.
D. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power, it assumes the device
has failed and disconnects it.
Correct Answer: A
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PoE monitoring and policing compares the power consumption on ports with the administrative maximum value
(either a configured maximum value or the port’s default value). If the power consumption on a monitored port
exceeds the administrative maximum value, the following actions occur:
- A syslog message is issued.
- The monitored port is shut down and error-disabled.
- The allocated power is freed.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/
book/power_over_ethernet.pdf

QUESTION 19
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.
B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table.
C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port.
D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.
Correct Answer: C
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts
B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network
C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the Internet with private range addressing
D. enables secure communications to the Internet for all external hosts
Correct Answer: A
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the
MAC address of that interface?
96CE4376707A97CE80D4B1916F054522
A. explicitly assign a link-local address
B. disable the EUI-64 bit process
C. enable SLAAC on an interface
D. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network
Correct Answer: C
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard
designs are recommended? (Choose two.)
A. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels.
B. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.
C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels.
D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.
E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.
Correct Answer: CE
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
A. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data, UDP
provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.
B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP
sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking.
C. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data; UDP is a connectionoriented
protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.
D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by
establishing a three-way handshake.
Correct Answer: B
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.)
A. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections
B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding
96CE4376707A97CE80D4B1916F054522
C. The data can pass through the cladding
D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber
E. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections
Correct Answer: BD
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference
:
QUESTION 25
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
A. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop
B. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC
C. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable
D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC
Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
A. 2000::/3
B. FC00::/7
C. FE80::/10
D. FF00::/12
Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
C. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.)
A. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies
B. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail
C. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains
D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host
E. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions
Correct Answer: AB
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public addresses?
A. multicast
B. unique local
C. link-local
D. global unicast
Correct Answer: D
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
A. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value
B. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface
C. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted
D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification
Correct Answer: C
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
A corporate office uses four floors in a building.
Floor 1 has 24 users.
Floor 2 has 29 users.
Floor 3 has 28 users.
Floor 4 has 22 users.

Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
A. 192.168.0.0/24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor
B. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor
C. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor
D. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor
Correct Answer: C
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: